The Definition of Baptism

The word "baptizo"? is used nearly every time we see the word baptize, baptism, or Baptist. The word "baptizo"? in the Greek means "to make whelmed; fully wet"? according to the Strong's Exhaustive Greek Dictionary. The same root word "bapto"? is translated "dipped"? or "dip"? three times in the New Testament. Notice Luke 16:24, John 13:26 and Rev. 19:13. These are all items that have been submerged in a liquid. In Luke, it was the finger being dipped in water. In John, it was the bread being dipped in the sop. In Revelation, it was the vesture of the Lord that had been dipped in blood. There is no denying that the word baptize very strongly implies a total, complete immersion. Let us look at this even further.

In the New Testament, there are different Greek words for "?sprinkle' One is "?rhaino' and the other is "rhantismos'. The words "?sprinkle', and "?sprinkling' are all the same basic word. In all of the uses of the word, it is clear that the action being performed is indeed a sprinkling of a substance, usually blood. I said all that to say this. If sprinkling was an allowable mode of baptism, why is only the word "?baptizo' used to describe the action?

There is at least 4 different Greek words for the English word "pour"?. We see the word pour mentioned in Matt. 26:7, John 13:5 and many times in Revelation 16, just to mention a few. So if pouring was a proper administration of baptism, why is that word never mentioned during a baptism? Again, the only word to describe the word baptism is the Greek word, "?baptizo'.

Biblically, unless one has been immersed, they can not claim to have even been baptized! The very definition of the word states that!

B. The Details of Baptism

There are plenty of additional proofs as to the Biblical mode of baptism. Let us look first at Matthew 3:6. The very first time baptism is described in Scripture, we see those that are being baptized in the river. "And were baptized of him in Jordan, confessing their sins."? Matt. 3:6 There is no possible way to misunderstand this verse. It didn't say they were at the river or near the river; it says they were "in Jordan"?.

Why don't we look at the Lord Jesus Christ's baptism? Surely his example should shed some light on the proper way of doing things. In Matthew 3:13-17, we see the account of Jesus being baptized of John the Baptist.

Matthew 3:13-17 "Then cometh Jesus from Galilee to Jordan unto John, to be baptized of him. But John forbad him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me? And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him. And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him: And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased."?

He asked John to baptize him and John didn't want to. John wanted Jesus to baptize him, but Jesus insisted that he be baptized. In verse 16, the Bible says that Jesus came up straightway out of the water. Is there any doubt that Jesus recognized that baptism must be performed IN WATER?

The reason that Jesus was baptized was in his own words "for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness."? In all actuality, if Jesus had never been baptized, no one would have blamed him. I mean, why would someone that was going to experience the REAL death, burial and resurrection need to show a picture of it through baptism? He did it to illustrate to us the correct attitude to have concerning this ordinance.